Free practice quiz
AAHIVP Prep Course (AAHIVP): free quiz
10 questions from the program. See your score right away, then unlock the explanation of every answer.
- Question 1 of 10
An ambulatory HIV clinic pharmacist reviews a new ART order for a fictional patient with confirmed HIV: bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide 50/200/25 mg PO once daily. The patient takes dofetilide 500 mcg PO twice daily for atrial fibrillation; eGFR is 45 mL/min/1.73 m2. No acute symptoms are reported. Within pharmacist scope and collaborative practice, which next step is best?
Option review
A is tempting because BIC/FTC/TAF fits eGFR 45, but bictegravir may raise dofetilide exposure; labeling contraindicates coadministration. B is tempting because DTG is preferred, but dolutegravir is also contraindicated with dofetilide. D is correct: raltegravir has minimal transporter/CYP effect, and TAF/FTC is usable when CrCl is at least 30. C is a dose-adjustment trap; changing dofetilide dose does not remove the contraindicated interaction.
Review Ambulatory Scope — focus on interaction screening before dispensing ART.
NOTICE dofetilide plus INSTI interaction; SAY the order needs clarification; MONITOR renal function and HIV RNA per guidance; HOLD/CLARIFY before dispensing and ESCALATE for arrhythmia symptoms. - Question 2 of 10
An outpatient HIV question appears to favor a guideline-based management action. However, the vignette also includes new symptoms, abnormal laboratory results, and several concomitant medications. What should the candidate do before selecting the proposed action?
A: Incorrect. Identifying the guideline principle is important, but the source also requires a safety check using relevant clinical information before choosing the answer.
B: Correct. The source explicitly instructs candidates to verify safety using symptoms, laboratory findings, interactions, and comorbidities.
C: Incorrect. The source favors guideline-based ambulatory actions over institution-specific rules.
D: Incorrect. Referral or consultation is appropriate when the problem is beyond scope, not automatically for every ambulatory HIV question.
- Question 3 of 10
A candidate correctly identifies the governing guideline principle in an HIV-care vignette but chooses an answer without considering a potentially important medication interaction mentioned in the stem. Which reasoning error is most evident?
A: Correct. The source requires candidates to verify safety using factors that include medication interactions before selecting the final action.
B: Incorrect. The source favors guideline-based ambulatory actions rather than institution-specific rules.
C: Incorrect. Concomitant medications alone do not automatically require referral; they should be assessed for interactions and other safety implications.
D: Incorrect. The source does not state that the most intensive intervention is preferred; the best answer follows the governing principle while satisfying safety and scope requirements.
- Question 4 of 10
During exam preparation, a clinician develops a four-step approach to best-next-step questions. Which sequence most closely matches the reasoning framework in the source pack?
A: Incorrect. This sequence begins with an intervention before identifying the task and incorrectly prioritizes local policy.
B: Correct. This sequence integrates all four source bullets: identifying the task and key facts, applying the guideline principle, verifying safety, and recognizing when consultation, referral, or urgent escalation is needed.
C: Incorrect. The source does not support focusing only on laboratory findings or choosing an intervention before establishing the governing principle and safety.
D: Incorrect. Institution-specific rules are not preferred over guideline-based ambulatory actions, and comorbidities are explicitly part of the safety assessment.
- Question 5 of 10
An ambulatory HIV pharmacist reviews a fictional patient taking bictegravir/tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine 50/25/200 mg PO once daily with persistent viremia. The clinician is considering adding maraviroc 300 mg PO twice daily. Which recommendation best connects the medication plan to the HIV life-cycle target?
Review Entry Inhibitors
C is correct: maraviroc antagonizes CCR5, preventing gp120-mediated entry; use only with CCR5-tropic virus and adjust for CYP3A inhibitors/inducers per labeling and DHHS. B is tempting for resistant viremia, but boosted CYP3A inhibitors require lower, not higher, maraviroc dosing; integrase is not its target. D is tempting because enfuvirtide is an entry drug, but it is 90 mg subcutaneously twice daily, blocks gp41 fusion, and has no CCR5-tropism or renal-dose requirement. A is tempting because fostemsavir blocks gp120 attachment, but it is for heavily treatment-experienced multidrug-resistant HIV; polyvalent-cation separation is an INSTI issue. NOTICE tropism/interactions; SAY CCR5 testing matters; MONITOR HIV RNA in 2-4 weeks; HOLD/CLARIFY non-CCR5 tropism or major CYP3A interactions.
- Question 6 of 10
In an ambulatory HIV clinic, a pharmacist reviews a 27-year-old patient using emtricitabine/tenofovir DF 200/300 mg by mouth once daily for PrEP. Two weeks after condomless receptive anal sex, the patient has fever, diffuse rash, pharyngitis, and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. A same-day rapid HIV antibody test is negative. Which next step is most appropriate?
Acute HIV testing
C is correct: acute retroviral syndrome plus recent exposure can precede antibody positivity; HIV-1 RNA and lab antigen/antibody testing are indicated before regimen changes. A is tempting because PrEP is protective, but antibody-only testing can be falsely negative early. B is tempting for adherence, but cabotegravir should not be started until acute HIV is excluded. D is tempting symptomatically, but it ignores HIV timing and adds interaction complexity without diagnosis.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE fever/rash after exposure; SAY antibody tests may miss early HIV; MONITOR HIV RNA/Ag-Ab promptly; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE PrEP changes until acute HIV is evaluated. - Question 7 of 10
At an ambulatory HIV clinic pharmacy, you assess PrEP candidacy before dispensing emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 200/300 mg by mouth once daily. A 29-year-old cisgender woman reports ongoing condomless receptive vaginal sex with partners of unknown HIV status. HIV antigen/antibody testing is negative today, she has no acute retroviral symptoms, estimated CrCl is 78 mL/min, HBsAg is negative, and she takes carbamazepine 400 mg by mouth twice daily for seizures. Which PrEP plan is most appropriate to recommend within scope?
Review PrEP candidacy assessment
D is correct: daily FTC/TDF is effective for receptive vaginal exposure when HIV-negative and CrCl is at least 60 mL/min. A is tempting because FTC/TAF allows CrCl at least 30 mL/min, but it is not indicated for receptive vaginal exposure. B is tempting as renal-sparing injectable PrEP, but carbamazepine is contraindicated with cabotegravir due to UGT induction. C is tempting to reduce pill burden, but 2-1-1 FTC/TDF is not recommended for vaginal exposure.
NOTICE exposure pattern, HIV status, CrCl, HBV, and carbamazepine. SAY daily adherence matters. MONITOR HIV and renal labs per guidance. HOLD/CLARIFY for acute HIV symptoms, positive HIV testing, or CrCl below threshold. - Question 8 of 10
An ambulatory HIV clinic pharmacist reviews a request for PEP: bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide 50/200/25 mg PO once daily for 28 days. The patient reports condomless receptive anal sex 80 hours ago with a partner whose HIV status is unknown. Baseline HIV Ag/Ab testing is pending, creatinine clearance is 82 mL/min, and the medication list includes carbamazepine 300 mg PO twice daily. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
PEP eligibility window
A is correct: PEP is recommended only when it can be started within 72 hours after a substantial exposure; after 80 hours, shift to testing, counseling, STI/hepatitis evaluation, and PrEP planning. B is tempting because it is a recommended PEP regimen, but carbamazepine also substantially lowers bictegravir. D is tempting as an integrase-based alternative, but the 72-hour window has passed. C is tempting as renal caution, but CrCl 82 mL/min does not require q48h TDF/FTC and raltegravir is affected by enzyme induction.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE timing and carbamazepine. SAY PEP is time-sensitive. MONITOR serial HIV tests. HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE for acute HIV symptoms or complex source details. - Question 9 of 10
In an ambulatory HIV prevention pharmacy visit, a 24-year-old began nPEP 5 days ago with tenofovir DF/emtricitabine 300/200 mg PO once daily plus dolutegravir 50 mg PO once daily after condomless receptive anal sex 36 hours before starting therapy. Baseline lab today: HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab nonreactive; creatinine clearance is 92 mL/min. The patient takes calcium carbonate 1,000 mg PO nightly and asks whether the negative result proves they can stop PEP. What is the best pharmacist response?
Review Negative Test Window Periods
C is correct. Fourth-generation HIV tests can be negative during the window period; indicated PEP is continued for 28 days with follow-up testing. Dolutegravir chelates calcium, so separate dosing or take together with food. D is tempting because baseline testing is negative, but it cannot exclude very recent infection. A is tempting as renal adjustment, but CrCl 92 mL/min does not warrant reduced TDF/FTC dosing. B is tempting for renal safety, but fasting calcium can lower dolutegravir exposure and switching should follow guideline-supported PEP selection.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE recent exposure; SAY the test may be too early; MONITOR repeat HIV testing; HOLD/CLARIFY if symptoms, adherence issues, or interactions arise. - Question 10 of 10
A 29-year-old patient in an ambulatory HIV clinic has a reactive HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody test with HIV-1 differentiation positive. As the clinic pharmacist, you are reviewing a rapid-start plan for bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide 50/200/25 mg by mouth once daily. The patient is tearful and asks, “What happens now?” Which response best aligns with new-diagnosis counseling?
Rapid-start counseling
D is correct: confidential, stigma-free result delivery, safety assessment, rapid linkage, ART benefit, and U=U counseling fit HIV guidance. C is tempting because rapid ART is appropriate, but transmission reduction follows viral suppression, not CD4 normalization. A is tempting as simple ART, but dolutegravir/lamivudine is not preferred for rapid start before hepatitis B and baseline data review. B is a dose-adjustment trap: eGFR 45 does not require twice-daily bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide; cation interactions, not dose escalation, need management.
NOTICE distress, renal function, HBV status, and cation products. SAY results clearly. MONITOR HIV RNA in 2–4 weeks. HOLD/CLARIFY for CrCl <30, major interaction, or safety crisis.
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