Free practice quiz
BCGP Prep Course (BCGP): free quiz
10 questions from the program. See your score right away, then unlock the explanation of every answer.
- Question 1 of 10An 84-year-old woman in long-term care is receiving diazepam 5 mg by mouth at bedtime for insomnia. As the consultant pharmacist, you review her profile: weight 46 kg, serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, daytime sedation, and 1 recent fall. Which recommendation best reflects age-related pharmacokinetic changes affecting this medication?
Why C is correct
Diazepam is highly lipophilic and forms active metabolites. In older adults, increased body fat expands distribution of lipophilic drugs, and reduced hepatic/overall clearance can prolong elimination, increasing next-day sedation and falls. A serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL may look normal yet still underestimate kidney impairment in low muscle mass, reinforcing caution with accumulating sedatives. Beers Criteria recommends avoiding benzodiazepines in most older adults because of cognitive impairment, delirium, falls, and fractures.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE daytime sedation and fall after diazepam 5 mg nightly. SAY to the prescriber that age-related distribution and clearance increase accumulation risk. MONITOR sedation, gait instability, and withdrawal symptoms over days to weeks. HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if recurrent falls, confusion, or excessive sedation occur.Why the other options are incorrect
A: Tempting because diazepam is not mainly renally eliminated. The eliminating fact is that aging increases sensitivity and prolongs half-life through lipophilic distribution and hepatic/metabolite accumulation; normal serum creatinine does not assure safe exposure. D: Tempting because dose escalation may seem to improve sleep. The eliminating fact is the opposite PK change: older adults generally have a larger, not smaller, volume of distribution for lipophilic drugs, increasing persistence. B: Tempting because clonazepam is another long-acting benzodiazepine. The eliminating fact is that long-acting benzodiazepines also accumulate and remain inappropriate for routine insomnia use in many older adults.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE that A ignores misleading serum creatinine, B reverses the lipophilic PK principle, and D substitutes a similar high-risk agent. SAY that safer nonbenzodiazepine approaches should be considered per goals and facility policy. MONITOR for deprescribing tolerance and sleep symptoms after changes. HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if abrupt discontinuation is proposed after chronic use or if severe withdrawal risk is present. - Question 2 of 10
An 83-year-old with chronic kidney disease and osteoarthritis takes naproxen 500 mg PO twice daily plus lisinopril 20 mg PO daily. BP is controlled; eGFR is 34 mL/min/1.73 m2. What is the best pharmacist recommendation?
Review renal reserve and NSAID PD
A is correct: NSAIDs reduce renal prostaglandin-mediated perfusion and raise BP, AKI, GI bleed, and heart failure risk; ACE inhibitor co-use increases AKI risk. A ignores aging reserve. D is a same-class dose trap. A adds antiplatelet/GI bleeding. NOTICE CKD plus ACEI; SAY avoid chronic NSAID; MONITOR SCr, BP, pain; HOLD/ESCALATE AKI, melena, edema.
- Question 3 of 10
An 89-year-old woman in long-term care with advanced frailty, 10-lb unintentional weight loss, slow gait, and dependence in 3 ADLs is taking atorvastatin 80 mg by mouth nightly for primary prevention. She has no history of myocardial infarction, stroke, or peripheral arterial disease. Current medications include lisinopril 10 mg daily, acetaminophen 650 mg by mouth three times daily, and calcium/vitamin D twice daily. As the consulting geriatric pharmacist, which recommendation is most appropriate to discuss with the prescriber?
Why B is correct
For an older adult with advanced frailty, functional dependence, and no established ASCVD, preventive benefit from statins may be delayed, while treatment burden and adverse effects are more immediate. Deprescribing is reasonable when prognosis, frailty, and goals of care favor simplification. This is a time-to-benefit and individualized risk-benefit decision rather than an automatic age-based rule.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE advanced frailty, weight loss, and primary-prevention use; SAY to the prescriber that expected benefit may be limited relative to burden; MONITOR for symptoms, function, and patient-centered goals at routine care reviews; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if ASCVD history is uncertain before stopping.Why D is incorrect
It is tempting because statins are common in older adults, but high-intensity therapy is not routinely indicated for all patients older than 75 years, especially for primary prevention. Frailty and prognosis should modify intensity decisions. Guidelines emphasize individualized discussion rather than universal continuation.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE the absence of ASCVD; SAY that age alone does not mandate high-intensity statin use; MONITOR medication burden and muscle symptoms; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if a secondary-prevention indication is later identified.Why A is incorrect
It is tempting because dose reduction seems safer, but frailty does not create a rule that moderate-intensity statin must be used. The key issue here is whether ongoing primary-prevention therapy aligns with prognosis and goals, not simply choosing a lower dose. Dose reduction may still preserve burden without meaningful near-term benefit.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE that the main question is indication persistence, not only dose; SAY that deintensification may be insufficient if time to benefit is long; MONITOR for withdrawal concerns and lipid therapy rationale; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if patient strongly prioritizes preventive treatment.Why C is incorrect
It is tempting because switching statins may appear to lower risk, but simvastatin has greater interaction concerns and is not preferred as a safer substitute in frail older adults. Changing to another statin also fails to address the central issue of limited primary-prevention benefit in advanced frailty.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE the interaction trap with simvastatin; SAY that switching agents does not solve questionable indication persistence; MONITOR for myalgias and medication changes after any adjustment; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE if interacting drugs are added or medication history is incomplete. - Question 4 of 10
An 81-year-old takes zolpidem 10 mg PO nightly for insomnia and sertraline 50 mg PO daily. Her caregiver reports nighttime wandering, morning confusion, and falls. As the pharmacist reviewing the regimen, what is the best recommendation?
Z-drug adverse effects
C is correct: zolpidem causes delirium, complex sleep behaviors, psychomotor impairment, and falls in older adults. B is tempting class substitution, but eszopiclone shares Z-drug risks. A adds benzodiazepine sedation. A exceeds safer geriatric dosing and increases next-day impairment; sertraline may add CNS effects.
NOTICE nighttime behaviors and falls. SAY deprescribe zolpidem. MONITOR sleep diary, cognition, falls weekly. HOLD/ESCALATE dangerous sleep behaviors or injury. Review Z-drug adverse effects — focus on CNS pharmacodynamics. - Question 5 of 10
A 81-year-old discharged after a fracture takes clonazepam 0.5 mg orally three times daily and new oxycodone 5 mg every 6 hours as needed. She needs a walker and help bathing. What medication-safety recommendation should the pharmacist prioritize?
CNS depressant transition risk
A correct: benzodiazepine plus opioid has additive respiratory/CNS depression and fall risk; taper avoids withdrawal. A and C increase sedation. A adds anticholinergic delirium/fall risk.
Pharmacist Action: Notice opioid-benzo plus ADL impairment; say taper/mitigate; monitor sedation, falls, breathing daily early; escalate for oversedation or confusion. - Question 6 of 10
A 78-year-old with chronic insomnia and severe COPD takes temazepam 15 mg PO nightly. He has morning somnolence and oxygen desaturations. Which pharmacist recommendation is most appropriate?
Review hypnotics in pulmonary disease
B is correct: benzodiazepines can worsen sedation and respiratory risk; tapering prevents withdrawal. A is a dose trap. D is tempting because lorazepam has no active metabolites, but class CNS/respiratory effects persist. A adds anticholinergic sedation and delirium risk.
NOTICE COPD, desaturation, somnolence. SAY taper hypnotic. MONITOR sleep, RR, O2, withdrawal weekly. ESCALATE hypoventilation or severe withdrawal. - Question 7 of 10
An 87-year-old with chronic kidney disease takes allopurinol 300 mg orally daily for gout prevention. The caregiver reports rash and missed hydration because the patient dislikes drinking without reminders. eGFR is 28 mL/min/1.73 m2. What should the pharmacist recommend?
Review Allopurinol Hypersensitivity
A is correct: rash on allopurinol, especially with CKD, requires urgent clarification because severe hypersensitivity can occur; dose and hydration support need review. C is tempting for gout prevention, but higher oxypurinol exposure worsens toxicity risk. D is a dangerous interaction: allopurinol inhibits azathioprine metabolism, causing myelosuppression. B is tempting symptom treatment, but masking rash delays action and diphenhydramine adds anticholinergic risk.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE rash plus eGFR 28; SAY stop and contact prescriber now; MONITOR rash, fever, CBC/renal labs as directed; ESCALATE for mucosal lesions or systemic symptoms. - Question 8 of 10
A pharmacist calls an 81-year-old after discharge for heart failure. The discharge list has furosemide 40 mg orally daily, but the patient also takes torsemide 20 mg orally daily from home because “both are water pills.” Weight is down 4 lb in 3 days and dizziness occurs on standing. What is the best recommendation?
B is correct: recent hospital changes commonly create duplicate therapy; two loop diuretics increase dehydration, falls, electrolyte disturbance, and kidney injury. D is tempting because the names differ, but mechanism duplicates. A is tempting for diuretic synergy, but worsens volume/electrolyte risk. C is tempting in heart failure, but high-dose spironolactone without renal/potassium review is unsafe.
NOTICE duplicate loop plus orthostasis; SAY clarify intended regimen; MONITOR weight, BP, SCr, K; HOLD/ESCALATE for syncope, severe dizziness, or rapid weight loss. - Question 9 of 10
A 76-year-old woman takes allopurinol 300 mg by mouth daily for gout. Her eGFR declined from 55 to 22 mL/min, and she was prescribed amoxicillin-clavulanate for sinusitis. She reports new rash and malaise. As the pharmacist, what should you recommend?
Allopurinol hypersensitivity risk
A is correct: rash, malaise, and renal decline on allopurinol raise concern for severe hypersensitivity; renal dosing should be reviewed. D is a dose trap. C is a dangerous interaction trap because allopurinol inhibits azathioprine metabolism. A may miss the causative high-risk drug.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE rash plus eGFR 22; SAY hold allopurinol and assess urgently; MONITOR CBC, renal/hepatic labs as ordered; ESCALATE for fever, mucosal lesions, or eosinophilia. - Question 10 of 10
Mr. Wallace, 90, has advanced dementia, dysphagia, and remote myocardial infarction 18 years ago. He takes atorvastatin 80 mg by mouth nightly. His surrogate reports comfort-focused goals and distress with swallowing tablets. As the consultant pharmacist, which recommendation best fits shared decision-making?
Core Content
A is correct: preventive statin benefit may require years, while dysphagia and comfort goals are immediate burdens. B is tempting from secondary-prevention logic, but goals and prognosis modify intensity. D is tempting for potency, but increases burden and interaction/myopathy concerns. C is a partial deintensification, but still targets a preventive endpoint misaligned with comfort. Review Shared Decision-Making Principles — focus on time-to-benefit and documented rationale.
NOTICE swallowing distress; SAY benefit is delayed; MONITOR for symptom change after stop; CLARIFY goals with surrogate and prescriber.
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