BCMTMS Prep Course (BCMTMS): free quiz

1. Question 1 of 10

   During a comprehensive medication review, a pharmacist notes that Elena M., a fictional patient, takes warfarin 5 mg by mouth once daily and started ibuprofen 800 mg by mouth three times daily for knee pain. Her INR was 2.6 last week, and she reports new bruising. Within pharmacist MTM scope, which action best translates the APhA/NACDS core elements into workflow?

   Choose one answer

   A

   Contact the prescriber to recommend avoiding scheduled NSAID therapy, discuss a safer pain plan, document the intervention, and arrange INR and bleeding follow-up.

   B

   Advise the patient to reduce warfarin to 2.5 mg by mouth once daily while continuing ibuprofen until the knee pain resolves.

   C

   Create an updated personal medication record listing warfarin and ibuprofen, give it to the patient, and reassess at the next annual CMR.

   D

   Recommend substituting naproxen 220 mg by mouth twice daily for ibuprofen because it is available over the counter and requires fewer daily doses.

2. Question 2 of 10

   A patient’s PMR shows omeprazole 20 mg by mouth every morning and clopidogrel 75 mg by mouth daily after a recent coronary stent. The patient asks whether all medicines on the list can be continued together. As the MTM pharmacist, what is the best MAP focus?

   Choose one answer

   APrioritize increasing clopidogrel from 75 mg daily to 150 mg daily because omeprazole reduces antiplatelet activity.BPrioritize review of the omeprazole 20 mg every morning and clopidogrel 75 mg daily interaction, and communicate about a lower-interaction acid-suppression strategy if therapy is needed.CPrioritize switching omeprazole 20 mg every morning to esomeprazole 20 mg every morning because the S-isomer is more predictable.DPrioritize stopping clopidogrel 75 mg daily because the proton pump inhibitor is required for gastric protection.
3. Question 3 of 10A pharmacist in a medical home reviews amlodipine 10 mg by mouth daily and simvastatin 40 mg by mouth nightly for a patient seen every 3 months. The pharmacist consistently addresses indication, effectiveness, safety, and adherence for the entire regimen. Which service descriptor is best?
   Choose one answer

   AComprehensive medication management integrated into team-based care with longitudinal responsibility for medication optimization.BOne-time MTM only, because repeated visits do not affect how medication management services are classified.CIndependent specialty prescribing because the pharmacist follows the patient every 3 months.DInsurance counseling only, because simvastatin interactions are payer rather than clinical issues.
4. Question 4 of 10A pharmacist reconciles discharge medications for a beneficiary taking sacubitril/valsartan 49/51 mg by mouth twice daily, metoprolol succinate 50 mg by mouth daily, spironolactone 25 mg by mouth daily, and furosemide 40 mg by mouth daily. For Part D MTM eligibility, which medication count should generally be considered?
   Choose one answer

   AOnly the number of cardiovascular medications in the same pharmacologic class.BThe number of covered Part D medications included in the plan's MTM targeting criteria.COnly the number of prescription medications taken in the morning.DAll prescription and over-the-counter products combined, regardless of Part D coverage and plan criteria.
5. Question 5 of 10A pharmacist reviewing metformin extended release 1000 mg by mouth twice daily is asked why a generic may still have a copay when the patient also purchased supplemental coverage. Which explanation is best?
   Choose one answer

   AGeneric drugs cannot have copays under any prescription benefit once supplemental coverage is active.BA generic copay occurs only when the prescriber orders an excessive metformin dose that the plan wants reduced.CGeneric drugs may still have plan-defined cost sharing, and supplemental coverage does not universally make every generic prescription free.DA generic copay means the pharmacy processed the claim incorrectly because only brand drugs can appear on a formulary tier.
6. Question 6 of 10

   Which aspect of medication therapy management (MTM) sessions is a potential DISADVANTAGE when they are conducted using the face to face model?

   Choose one answer

   AIt can be difficult for a patient to schedule the sessions due to SDOH.BThe pharmacist might lack the patient's prescription history.CThe sessions are not as effective as other MTM models.DThere is a lower reimbursement rate compared to other MTM models.
7. Question 7 of 10A community pharmacist reviews lisinopril 20 mg by mouth daily for a 64-year-old enrolled in Medicare Part D. Refill history shows multiple 30-day fills with intermittent 5- to 7-day delays because the patient forgets monthly pickup. Which MTM intervention is most likely to improve the Star adherence measure for renin-angiotensin system antagonists?
   Choose one answer

   ATell the patient to take lisinopril every other day when supplies run low to avoid running out completely.BSynchronize fills and request a prescriber-approved 90-day supply so fewer pickup opportunities are missed.CChange lisinopril independently to losartan 25 mg by mouth daily because a different agent is easier to remember.DDelay adherence outreach until the patient has a systolic blood pressure above 180 mm Hg in the pharmacy.
8. Question 8 of 10A pharmacist performs medication reconciliation after hospital discharge for pneumonia. The patient’s home list included simvastatin 40 mg by mouth nightly. The discharge prescriptions include clarithromycin 500 mg by mouth twice daily for 7 days and simvastatin 40 mg nightly. What is the best pharmacist action?
   Choose one answer

   ARecommend increasing simvastatin to 80 mg nightly during infection because inflammation can worsen lipid control.BSwitch simvastatin to lovastatin 40 mg nightly without prescriber input because it has less interaction potential with clarithromycin.CAdvise continuing both because a short 7-day antibiotic course does not meaningfully affect simvastatin concentrations.DContact the prescriber to address a major interaction because clarithromycin can markedly increase simvastatin exposure and raise myopathy risk; suggest an alternative antibiotic or temporary statin hold if appropriate.
9. Question 9 of 10During an MTM adherence and safety review, a pharmacist notes topiramate 100 mg by mouth twice daily for epilepsy on the active profile. A new order from another clinic adds acetazolamide 250 mg by mouth twice daily for altitude prophylaxis. Which discrepancy should be prioritized first?
   Choose one answer

   APrioritize taking both agents with antacids because alkalinization prevents the interaction.BPrioritize increasing topiramate to 150 mg twice daily because altitude exposure commonly lowers antiepileptic efficacy.CPrioritize additive carbonic anhydrase inhibition because topiramate and acetazolamide together increase metabolic acidosis and kidney stone risk.DPrioritize moving acetazolamide to bedtime because nighttime administration avoids acid-base effects.
10. Question 10 of 10A pharmacist reviews chronic kidney disease follow-up for a patient taking spironolactone 25 mg by mouth daily and losartan 100 mg by mouth daily. The chart shows no serum potassium or serum creatinine documented in 9 months. What is the most appropriate pharmacist recommendation?
    Choose one answer

    ARecommend increasing spironolactone from 25 mg daily to 50 mg daily now because potassium has not been checked recently and efficacy may be lower than expected.BRecommend adding lisinopril 20 mg daily to losartan 100 mg daily and spironolactone 25 mg daily to improve renal protection.CRecommend prompt potassium and renal function monitoring because combined spironolactone 25 mg daily and losartan 100 mg daily increase hyperkalemia and kidney injury risk.DRecommend continuing the current regimen without labs because the doses are common maintenance doses.

Check my answers